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CCNA Practice Questions Exam Cram, 2nd Edition


CCNA Practice Questions Exam Cram, 2nd Edition
By Jeremy D. Cioara, Chris Ward
...............................................
Publisher: Que
Pub Date: December 05, 2005
ISBN: 0-7897-3529-6
Pages: 240

About the Authors

Jeremy D. Cioara (CCIE, MCSE, CNE) is the owner of AdTEC Networks and works as a network consultant, instructor, and author. He has been working in network technologies for more than a decade and has deployed networks worldwide. His current consulting work focuses on network and Voice over IP (VoIP) implementations. Jeremy has written many books on Cisco network technology but has a true passion for educating individuals both in the classroom and through e-learning environments. He is married to a stunningly beautiful, talented, and witty woman who has recently attained the coveted Certified Best Wife in the World (CBWW) certification.

Chris Ward is a Senior Technical Instructor for a Web-based ILT company and a pastor of a small church. He is certified as a CCSI, CCNP, CCDP, and MCSE. He has worked for companies such as IntegrationWorks, Salem Communications, and his own company, NightFall Productions, over the past 10+ years. He has written for several publications, as well as co-authored a book on Windows Server 2003. His most important achievement, however, is being a good husband and dad to his wife and two children.

Copyright
Copyright © 2006 by Que Publishing
All rights reserved. No part of this book shall be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without written permission from the publisher. No patent liability is assumed with respect to the use of the information contained herein. Although every precaution has been taken in the preparation of this book, the publisher and author assume no responsibility for errors or omissions. Nor is any liability assumed for damages resulting from the use of the information contained herein.
Library of Congress Catalog Card Number: 2005934728
Printed in the United States of America
First Printing: December 2005
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Trademarks
All terms mentioned in this book that are known to be trademarks or service marks have been appropriately capitalized. Que Publishing cannot attest to the accuracy of this information. Use of a term in this book should not be regarded as affecting the validity of any trademark or service mark.
Warning and Disclaimer
Every effort has been made to make this book as complete and as accurate as possible, but no warranty or fitness is implied. The information provided is on an "as is" basis. The authors and the publisher shall have neither liability nor responsibility to any person or entity with respect to any loss or damages arising from the information contained in this book or from the use of the CD or programs accompanying it.
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Credits
Publisher
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The CCNA Cram Sheet

This Cram Sheet contains the distilled, key facts about Exams 640-821, 640-811, and 640-801. Review this information as the last thing you do before you enter the testing center, paying special attention to those areas where you feel that you need the most review. You can transfer any of these facts from your head onto a blank sheet of paper immediately before you begin the exam.

The primary advantage of bridging is increased bandwidth available on a segment because of the decreased number of devices in the collision domain.

Switches are high-speed, multiport bridges. Switches support the same functionality as bridges but usually have a greater port density. Each switch port is a separate collision domain, and each port provides dedicated bandwidth.

Virtual local area networks (VLANs) can be used to make a group of switch ports into a separate, isolated LAN. Routing is required for communication between VLANs.

VLANs can function across multiple switches when they are connected by a trunk connection. Inter-switch linking (ISL) is used to create a trunk connection between Fast Ethernet ports on Cisco switches.

Switches make it possible to run Ethernet devices in full-duplex mode. In full-duplex mode, two devices share the Ethernet wire simultaneously and exclusively, enabling faster throughput because no collisions are possible.

Store-and-forward switching reads the entire frame before making a forwarding decision; cut-through switching reads only the first six bytes—the destination media access control (MAC) address—to make a forwarding decision. Store-and-forward switching performs error checking; cut-through switching does not.

The primary advantages of routers are

They allow you to connect dissimilar LANs.

They provide multiple paths to a destination network.

They allow the interconnection of large and complex networks.

Connection-oriented communication uses a nonpermanent path for data transfer. It involves three steps: establish the connection, transfer the data, and terminate the connection. A practical example of a connection-oriented communication would be a walkie-talkie conversation in which the connection has to be established each time to the receiver by pressing a button, and after you are finished talking, you release the button until you want to talk again. Connectionless communication uses a permanently established link. An example of a connection-oriented protocol is TCP, and an example of connectionless communication protocol is UDP. Again, a practical example would be that of a telephone conversation in which a connection is made and maintained throughout the duration of the call.

The layers of the OSI model are as follows:


7. Application



6. Presentation



5. Session



4. Transport



3. Network



2. Data Link



1. Physical


Encapsulation, or tunneling, takes frames from one network system and places them inside frames from another network system.

The Presentation layer concerns itself with data representation, data encryption, and data compression. It supports different protocols for text, data, sound, video, graphics, and images, such as ASCII, MIDI, MPEG, GIF, and JPEG.

The Session layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between applications. Network file system (NFS), structured query language (SQL), and remote procedure calls (RPCs) are examples of Session layer protocols.

The Transport layer sits between the upper and lower layers of the OSI model. It performs flow control by buffering, multiplexing, and parallelization. It provides end-to-end data transport services by segmenting upper-layer applications, establishing an end-to-end connection, sending segments from one end host to another, and ensuring reliable data transport.

The primary functions of the Network layer of the OSI model are path determination and logical addressing. In addition, remember that the Network layer is the domain of routing.

The primary functions of the Data-Link layer of the OSI model are

It allows the upper layers of the OSI model to work independently of the physical media.

It performs physical hardware addressing.

It provides optional flow control.

It generates error notification.

Convergence occurs when all routers in an internetwork agree on optimal routes. A routing loop occurs when a packet bounces back and forth between two or more routers.

Distance vector routing protocols send their entire routing tables to their neighbors. Link state protocols send the state of their own interfaces to every router in the internetwork.

Counting to infinity is a problem for distance vector routing protocols. This problem can be eliminated or mitigated by using the following techniques: maximum hop count, split horizon, route poisoning, and hold-down timers.

TCP provides a connection-oriented and reliable service to the applications that use its services with the use of acknowledgments, sequence number checking, error and duplication checking, and the TCP three-way handshake. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides a connectionless and best-effort service to the applications that use its services.

Well-known port numbers include

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 21

Telnet 23

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) 25

Domain Name System (DNS) 53

TFTP 69

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 161, 162

HTTP 80

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) maps a known IP address to a physical address. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) maps a known physical address to a logical address.

You should understand the basic concepts of IP addressing. Dotted-decimal notation is the decimal representation of a 32-bit IP address. The dotted-decimal notation represents the four octets of bits by performing binary-to-decimal conversion for each octet and providing a decimal value for each octet.

You should know the decimal representation of classes A, B, and C addresses as well as the number of networks and nodes each supports as follows:

Class A: 1 through 126

Class B: 128 through 191

Class C: 192 through 223

You should be able to recognize the default mask for each class of IP address as follows:

Class A: 255.0.0.0

Class B: 255.255.0.0

Class C: 255.255.255.0

The network number and broadcast address for a given subnet are the first and last IP addresses, respectively. The range of usable IP addresses is all addresses between the network number and broadcast address. In binary format, the network number has all of the host bits of the address set to 0. The broadcast address has all of the host bits set to 1.

You should know how to do subnetting tasks very quickly. This capability will save you valuable time in the end.

The interface between the customer network and the WAN provider network occurs between the data terminal equipment (DTE) and the data communication equipment (DCE). DTE devices are usually routers. DCE devices are usually modems, channel service units/data service units (CSUs/DSUs), and terminal adapter/network terminations 1 (TA/NT1s).

Frame relay is a high-speed, packet-switching WAN protocol that operates at the Data-Link layer. It runs on nearly any type of serial interface, uses frame check sequence (FCS) as its error-checking mechanism, and relies on a discard eligibility bit for congestion management. A virtual circuit must connect two DTE devices within a frame relay network. Permanent virtual circuits (PVCs) are more widely used than switched virtual circuits (SVCs) in frame relay networks.

Data link connection identifier (DLCI) serves as the addressing scheme within a frame relay network. Local Management Information (LMI) is a set of enhancements to frame relay that was developed by Cisco, StrataCom, Northern Telecom, and DEC. Cisco routers support LMI variations for American National Standards Institute (ANSI), Q933a, and Cisco.

DLCIs are mapped to network layer addresses through inverse ARP or by using the frame-relay map command.

Committed Information Rate (CIR) is the rate, in bits per second, at which data is transferred across the frame relay network.

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses a two-way handshake to authenticate Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connections and transmits username/password information in clear text. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) uses a three-way handshake and relies on secret, encrypted passwords and unique IDs to authenticate PPP.

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can be ordered as either basic rate interface (BRI) or primary rate interface (PRI). ISDN functions represent devices or hardware functions within ISDN. Reference points describe the logical interfaces between functions.

ISDN can be used to add bandwidth for telecommuting, improve Internet response time, carry multiple network layer protocols, and encapsulate other WAN services.

Dial-on-demand routing (DDR) works with ISDN to establish and terminate connections. It uses access lists to look for interesting traffic.

EXEC includes the following:

Context-sensitive help for syntax checking, command prompting, and keyword completion. Use the question mark (?) to activate context-sensitive help.

Command history that provides a record of recent commands. Use the up- and down-arrow keys to scroll through the history list. Tab completes a partially entered command.

Enhanced editing that enables commands retrieved from the command history to be changed quickly and then reexecuted. The terminal editing and terminal no editing commands enable and disable enhanced editing.

Use the Tab key to allow the router to complete commands after you get a %incomplete command% message.

Examine the status of a router with the following commands: show version, show memory, show protocols, show running-config (or write terminal), show startup-config (or show configuration), show interfaces, and show flash.

The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) displays summary information about directly connected devices and operates at the Data Link layer. The show cdp neighbors command displays ID, local and remote port, holdtime, platform, and capability information. The show cdp entry command displays information about a specific device, including all Layer 3 addresses and Internetwork Operating System (IOS) versions.

The command to back up a router configuration file (copy a configuration file from a router to a Trivial File Transfer Protocol [TFTP] server) is copy running-config tftp. The command to restore a configuration file (copy a configuration file from a TFTP server to a router) is copy tftp running-config.

The commands to set the enable secret, console, and auxiliary passwords on a router are as follows:


Router(config)#enable password

Router(config)#enable secret password

Router(config)#line aux 0

Router(config-line)#login

Router(config-line)#password password

Router(config)#line con 0

Router(config-line)#login

Router(config-line)#password password

Router(config)#line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)#login

Router(config-line)#password password




To create a banner for a router and a description for an interface, use the banner motd (message of the day) and description commands.

Router resource usage, bandwidth consumption, and update synchronization are problems for link state routing protocols. They can be eliminated or reduced by using the following techniques:

Lengthening update frequency

Exchanging route summaries

Using time stamps or sequence numbers

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) can be configured on a router with the following commands:


Router (config)# router rip

Router (config-router)# network




Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) can be configured on a router with the following commands:


Router (config)# router eigrp

Router (config-router)# network




The most important basic commands used to monitor IP with Cisco routers are show ip interface, show ip protocol, and show ip route.

A list of the important access list numeric identifiers follows:

1 through 99: IP standard access list

100 through 199: IP extended access list

800 through 899: IPX standard access list

900 through 999: IPX extended access list

1000 through 1099: Service Advertisement Protocols (SAP) access list

Two rules for applying a wildcard mask to an IP address are

A 1 bit in the wildcard mask indicates that the corresponding bit in the IP address can be ignored. Thus, the IP address bit can be either 1 or 0.

A 0 in the wildcard mask indicates that the corresponding bit in the IP address must be strictly followed. Thus, the value must be exactly the same as specified in the IP address.

The difference in the capabilities of IP-extended access lists in comparison with IP standard access lists is that standard access lists filter IP traffic based on source IP address or address range. IP extended access lists filter traffic based on source and destination addresses, ports, and many other fields.

Know that the last line of any access list is deny any any (implicit).

A standard access list can be configured on a router using the following command:


Router(config)#access-list <1-99>




An extended access list can be configured on a router using the following command:



Router(config)#access-list <100-199>

eq




Network Address Translation (NAT) allows internal IP addresses to be translated to external IP addresses.

The three forms of NAT include

Static NAT

Dynamic NAT

NAT Overload

The most popular form of NAT is the NAT Overload configuration, which translates many internal IP addresses to a single external IP address. The commands to configure NAT Overload are as follows:



Router(config-if)#ip nat inside

Router(config-if)#ip nat outside

Router(config)#ip nat inside source list

interface overload




A single physical interface can be configured with several virtual subinterfaces. Each subinterface can be configured with different addressing information. Subinterfaces can be created and accessed using the serial interface number followed by a period and a number (such as serial 0.78).

The commands to configure frame relay on a router are


Router (config)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco

Router (config)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco

Router (config)# interface serial 0

Router (config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci




The basic commands to monitor frame relay activity on a router are show frame-relay pvc, show frame-relay lmi, show frame-relay map, and debug frame-relay lmi.

The commands to configure PPP on a router are


Router (config)# username password

Router (config)# interface serial 0 Router (config-if)# encapsulation ppp

Router (config-if)# ppp authentication chap




The basic commands to monitor PPP activity on a router are show interface and debug ppp chap.

The commands to configure ISDN on a router are



Router (config)# isdn switch-type

Router (config)# dialer-list protocol permit

Router (config-if)# interface bri 0 Router (config-if)# encapsulation PPP

Router (config-if)# dialer-group

Router (config-if)# dialer map name speed



Router (config-if) dialer idle-timeout




The basic commands to monitor ISDN and DDR activity on a router are show controller bri, show interface bri, and show dialer.

Introduction

What Is This Book About?
Welcome to the CCNA Practice Questions Exam Cram, 2nd Edition! The sole aim of this book is to provide you with practice questions, complete with answers and explanations, that will help you learn, drill, and review for the CCNA exam
Who Is This Book For?
If you have studied the CCNA exam's content and feel you are ready to put your knowledge to the test, but aren't sure you want to take the real exam yet, this book is for you! Maybe you have answered other practice questions or unsuccessfully taken the real exam, reviewed, and want to do more practice questions before going to take the real exam—then this book is for you, too!
What Will You Find in This Book?
As mentioned before, this book is all about practice questions! This book is separated according to the topics you will find in the CCNA exam. Each chapter represents an exam topic, and in each chapter you will find three elements:

Practice Questions— These are the numerous questions that will help you learn, drill, and review.

Quick Check Answers— After you have finished answering the questions, you can quickly grade your exam from this section. Only correct answers are given here—no explanations are offered yet!

Answers and Explanations— This section offers you the correct answers, as well as further explanation about the content posed in that question. Use this information to learn why an answer is correct and to reinforce the content in your mind for exam day.

You will also find a Cram Sheet at the beginning of this book specifically written for this exam. This is a very popular element that is also found in CCNA Exam Cram, Second Edition (Que Publishing, ISBN 0-7897-3502-4). This item condenses all the necessary facts found in this exam into one easy-to-handle tear card. The Cram Sheet is something you can carry with you to the exam location and use as a last-second study aid. Be aware that you can't take it into the exam room, though!
Hints for Using This Book
As this book is a paper practice product, you might want to complete your exams on a separate piece of paper so that you can reuse the questions over and over without having previous answers in your way. Also, a general rule of thumb across all practice question products is to make sure you are scoring well into the high 80 to 90% range in all topics before attempting the real exam. The higher percentages you score on practice question products, the better your chances for passing the real exam. Of course, we can't guarantee a passing score on the real exam, but we can offer you plenty of opportunities to practice and assess your knowledge level before entering the real exam.
Need Further Study?
Are you having a hard time correctly answering these questions? If so, you probably need further review. Be sure to see the sister products to this book, CCNA Exam Cram, Second Edition (Que Publishing, ISBN 0-7897-3502-4) and CCNA Exam Prep (Que Publishing, ISBN 0-7897-3519-9) for further review. If you need even further study, check out the many offerings from Que's sister company, Cisco Press, at www.ciscopress.com.

Chapter 1. Cisco Network Fundamentals

1: You need to establish an EXEC session and access the command-line interface of your Cisco router. Which of the following access methods meet your requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Console connection

B. TFTP session

C. Telnet session

D. Modem connection

E. FTP session

2: When you start a Catalyst 2950 switch for the first time, where does it receive its initial configuration?

A. The switch downloads a configuration from a TFTP server.

B. The switch begins to perform basic functionality and enters a setup menu.

C. The switch autosenses the local area network configuration and configures itself accordingly.

D. The switch must have its configuration unlocked with a password.

3: What is the first action performed when a Cisco router starts up?

A. Load the Cisco IOS image

B. POST test

C. Configure IP address on the interfaces

D. Implement access list restrictions

4: What configuration requirements are necessary when communicating over the console port of your router?

A. 9600bps, 8 data bits, no parity, 1 stop bit, hardware flow control

B. 9600bps, 8 data bits, no parity, 1 stop bit, no flow control

C. 56000bps, 8 data bits, no parity, 1 stop bit, hardware flow control

D. 56000bps, 8 data bits, no parity, 1 stop bit, no flow control

5: You need to configure a remote device via a modem. To which interface should the modem be connected?

A. Console

B. Eth0/0

C. AUX

D. Ser0/0

6: After initial startup, which of the following are valid ways to access and configure your Cisco router? (Choose three.)

A. Terminal session via Telnet

B. Configuration download via TFTP

C. Command-line session via TFTP

D. Configuration download via CiscoWorks2000

7: Which of the following is a configuration mode that allows a person to access only a limited number of basic monitoring commands?

A. User EXEC level

B. Restricted EXEC level

C. Guest EXEC level

D. Anonymous EXEC level

8: Which of the following is a command mode that allows a person to access all router commands?

A. Admin EXEC level

B. Root EXEC level

C. Privileged EXEC level

D. Unrestricted EXEC level

9: Which key is used to parse and execute CLI commands?

A. Tab

B. Esc

C. Enter

D. F1

10: Which of the following prompts indicates a router in User EXEC mode?

A. hostname

B. hostname>

C. hostname#

D. hostname:

11: Which of the following is a security concern when configuring a device using Telnet?

A. Passwords are sent in clear text

B. Passwords are sent using reversible encryption

C. Passwords cannot be changed in a Telnet session

D. Passwords are not used during a Telnet session

12: Which of the following prompts indicates a router in Privileged EXEC mode?

A. hostname

B. hostname>

C. hostname#

D. hostname:

13: You are unsure of the command to use while configuring a router. How can you access the context-sensitive help to see a list of commands available to you?

A. help

B. /help

C. ?

D. -?

14: After working in a router in Privileged EXEC mode, how can you return to User EXEC mode?

A. exit

B. esc

C. disable

D. quit

15: Which of the following commands lists all the commands that start with the letter c?

A. show c

B. c?

C. c ?

D. show c?

16: You need to specify a name for your Catalyst 2950 Series switch. Which command assigns the name "branch" to your Catalyst 2950 switch?

A. name branch

B. hostname branch

C. set name branch

D. set hostname branch

17: You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?

A. Console port

B. Default gateway

C. Hostname

D. SNMP

18: You are examining the functionality of your switch. Which of the following commands displays the configuration of the system hardware, as well as the software version, configuration filenames, and boot images?

A. show version

B. show running-config

C. show running-configuration

D. show startup-configuration

19: You are attempting to isolate a configuration error on your switch. Which of the following commands displays the current active configuration of the switch?

A. show active-configuration

B. show running-config

C. show running-configuration

D. show startup-configuration

20: You want to examine the performance of your switch. Which of the following commands displays the statistics for the switch's interfaces?

A. show version

B. show stats

C. show interfaces

D. show results

21: You failed in attempting to access a switch remotely. You need to confirm the IP configuration of the switch to determine whether there was an entry error. Which of the following commands displays the IP address and subnet mask configured for the switch?

A. show ip config

B. ipconfig

C. show config

D. show interface vlan 1

22: You have received a new router. When you initially start the device, how does it receive its initial configuration?

A. The router uses a default configuration.

B. The router enters a setup mode.

C. The router downloads a configuration from a TFTP server.

D. The router autosenses the local area network configuration and configures itself accordingly.

23: You are working on your router, and after you enter a command, the router returns the error message % Ambiguous command. What does the message mean?

A. You did not use the proper command syntax.

B. You mistyped the command.

C. You did not enter enough characters to specify a single command.

D. You are attempting to configure a nonexistent interface.

24: You want to review the last command you entered. Which key sequences will display the last command entered on your router? (Choose two.)

A. Ctrl+P

B. Up arrow

C. Esc

D. Tab

25: You have been entering a complex router configuration and would like to review the prior commands. However, when you do so, the oldest commands do not appear. You would like to increase the number of prior commands available to you to 150 for your current session. What command can you use?

A. buffer size 150

B. command buffer 150

C. terminal history size 150

D. history size 150

26: You are creating a report that will include performance statistics for your routers. You need to determine how long each router has currently been running. Which command should you use?

A. show running-config

B. show statistics

C. show version

D. show uptime

27: Which of the following stores routing tables and the running configuration?

A. NVRAM

B. Flash

C. RAM

D. IOS

28: Which of the following locations is used to store the startup configuration?

A. NVRAM

B. Flash

C. RAM

D. IOS

29: Which of the following locations is used to store the backup configurations and IOS?

A. NVRAM

B. Flash

C. RAM

D. IOS

30: Which prompt displays the configuration mode that allows you to configure multiple virtual interfaces on a single physical interface?

A. router(config-if)#

B. router(config-subif)#

C. router(config-line)#

D. router(config)#

31: You need to configure the hostname of your router. Which command allows you to enter Global Configuration mode to make this change?

A. configure terminal

B. configure global

C. configure hostname

D. configure network

32: Which prompt displays the configuration mode that allows you to configure virtual terminal ports?

A. router(config-if)#

B. router(config-subif)#

C. router(config-line)#

D. router(config)#

33: You have made changes in your router's configuration that are causing communication problems. You want to restore the configuration the router was using when it powered up. What command should you enter?

A. restore startup

B. copy running-config startup-config

C. copy startup-config running-config

D. This cannot be done from the command line.

E. Reload

34: You are concerned about unauthorized access and configurations to the Privileged EXEC mode of your router. You want to implement an encrypted password for access to the device. Which command will accomplish this?

A. enable password

B. enable secret

C. enable password encrypted

D. enable encryption

35: You want to create a message for users who connect to the router, indicating that only authorized access is allowed. Which command creates this message?

A. banner # Authorized access only! #

B. banner motd # Authorized access only! #

C. motd # Authorized access only! #

D. login motd # Authorized access only! #

36: You want to protect Telnet sessions with a login password. Which series of commands will create a password of cisco to protect access to the router through Telnet?



A. line console 0
login
password cisco




B. line vty 0 4
login
enable secret cisco




C. line console 0
login
enable secret cisco




D. line vty 0 4
login
password cisco


37: While you are working on the router, your session is interrupted by the interjection of feedback from the router. You would like to make it easier to read your input and the messages. Which command accomplishes this?

A. logging synchronous

B. no interrupt

C. enable continuous

D. display on

38: While working with your router, you receive a phone call. You return to your session to find you have been disconnected by the timeout feature of the router, and you want to disable it. What command accomplishes your goal?

A. no timeout

B. exec-timeout 0 0

C. timeout disable

D. no disconnect

39: You have just installed a module with additional interfaces into your router. The module was installed in slot 1, and you need to configure the module's first Ethernet interface. What command do you use to access Interface Configuration mode to perform the configuration?

A. interface ethernet 1/0

B. ethernet 1/0

C. ethernet 1/1

D. interface ethernet 1/1

40: You are configuring a serial link between two routers. You need to configure one router as the DCE device. The clock rate needs to be set to 2400bps. Which command do you use?

A. clock 2400

B. clock rate 2400

C. clock 2.4

D. clock rate 2.4

41: You have disabled a serial interface temporarily. Which command will allow you to re-enable serial interface 0/1?

A. no shutdown

B. enable

C. no shutdown serial 0/1

D. enable serial 0/1

42: Which of the following indicates that Ethernet0/1 has a cable or interface problem?

A. Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up

B. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is up

C. Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is down

D. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down

43: Which of the following indicates that Ethernet0/1 has a clock rate or encapsulation problem?

A. Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up

B. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is up

C. Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is down

D. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down

44: Which of the following indicates that Ethernet0/1 has been turned off from the command-line interface?

A. Ethernet0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

B. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is up

C. Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is down

D. Ethernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down

45: You are connected to a remote router, and you need to determine the type of serial cables connected to the interface. What command should be issued?

A. show cable

B. show interface

C. show running-config

D. show controller

46: Which command specifies the Ethernet interface physical connection on your router?

A. media-type

B. connection-type

C. media

D. connection

47: On which interface should the clock rate be set when one router acts as the DCE and one router acts as the DTE?

A. Both

B. Neither

C. DTE

D. DCE

48: You want to ensure that passwords are encrypted over the network so that they are not easily discovered by packet sniffing. Which command accomplishes this?

A. encrypt network

B. encrypt all

C. encrypt passwords

D. service password-encryption

49: Which prompt displays a configuration mode that allows you to change an IP address on the router?

A. router(config)#

B. router(config-if)#

C. router(config-ip)#

D. router(config-line)#

50: Which prompt displays a configuration mode that allows you to set the message of the day?

A. router(config)#

B. router(config-if)#

C. router(config-ip)#

D. router(config-line)#

Answers and Explanations
A1: Answers: A, C, and D. Command-line interfaces can be established through a Telnet session, modem connection, and console connection. B is incorrect. Although TFTP is used to load a new IOS image onto a router, it does not allow you to establish a command-line interface session. E is incorrect, as FTP sessions are not used to establish command-line interface sessions with Cisco routers.

A2: Answer: B. All Catalyst switches perform basic switching functions. However, a setup menu similar to a router shows up on the screen. A is incorrect because the switch does not have an IP address or a default gateway installed in order to contact a TFTP server. C is incorrect because Catalyst switches rely on their default configuration on power-up and do not autosense the LAN configuration. D is incorrect because no passwords are set on the switch when it is turned on for the first time.

A3: Answer: B. When a Cisco router is first powered on, it performs a Power On Self Test, or POST, to ensure that its hardware is functioning properly. A is incorrect, as the Cisco IOS image is loaded after the post. C and D are incorrect, as they both take place after the IOS image is loaded.

A4: Answer: B. Communications software should be configured to communicate at 9600bps, with 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, no parity, and no flow control. A is incorrect because hardware flow control should not be configured. C and D are incorrect; the bps setting should be 9600, not 56000.

A5: Answer: C. For remote configuration, you connect a modem to the device's AUX port. A is incorrect; the console port is used for local configuration changes. B is incorrect, as the Eth0/0 interface does not support remote configuration via a modem. D is incorrect, as the Ser0/0 interface does not support remote configuration via a modem.

A6: Answers: A, B, and D. Configuration changes can be made through a Telnet session established with the router. B is correct, as configuration files can be downloaded from a TFTP server. Additionally, D is correct; network management applications such as CiscoWorks2000 also facilitate the downloading of configuration files. C is incorrect, as command-line sessions cannot be established through TFTP.

A7: Answer: A. User EXEC level contains a limited number of commands to allow basic monitoring. B, C, and D are incorrect, as they are not actual EXEC levels.

A8: Answer: C. The command mode that allows full access to all router commands is the Privileged EXEC level. A, B, and D are all fictitious command modes.

A9: Answer: C. The Enter key is used when configuring a router to parse and execute the typed command. A is incorrect, as the Tab key doesn't submit the command to the router; it merely autocompletes a partially entered command. B and D are incorrect, as neither the Esc key nor the F1 key is used to parse and execute commands.

A10: Answer: B. The hostname> prompt indicates the router is in User EXEC mode. A and D are incorrect, as they are not valid indicators of an EXEC mode. C is incorrect, as it indicates the user is in Privileged EXEC mode.

A11: Answer: A. Telnet traffic is not encrypted, so passwords are sent in plain text. B is incorrect, as Telnet uses no encryption. Passwords can be changed in a Telnet session, so C is incorrect. D is incorrect as well, as passwords are indeed usable during a Telnet session.

A12: Answer: C. The hostname# prompt indicates the router is in Privileged EXEC mode. A and D are incorrect, as they are not valid indicators of an EXEC mode. B is incorrect, as it indicates the user is in User EXEC mode.

A13: Answer: C. Entering ? at the prompt reveals the command options available to the user. A is incorrect, as entering help explains how to use the help feature. B and D are invalid commands.

A14: Answer: C. The disable command returns a user from Privileged EXEC mode to User EXEC mode. A is incorrect and typically ends the Telnet session. B is an invalid command. D is also incorrect and ends the Telnet session without returning the user to User EXEC mode.

A15: Answer: B. The proper syntax to show all commands beginning with the letter c is c?. A is incorrect, as entering show c attempts to execute a command; however, c is ambiguous, and the device returns an error message. C is also incorrect and has the same result; entering c ? attempts to show help, but c by itself is not specific enough to indicate a single command on the device and returns an error message. D is incorrect, as it is an invalid command.

A16: Answer: B. To assign a name to your switch, use the hostname command, followed by the name you want to assign. A is incorrect and is an invalid command. C and D are also incorrect and result in error messages on the device.

A17: Answer: B. Unless the switch is configured as an IP router, a default gateway must be configured. A is incorrect; your connection is not using the console port. C is correct, as a hostname is not required to configure the switch. D is incorrect; SNMP is used for remote management but is not required for you to configure a switch from a remote subnet.

A18: Answer: A. The show version command displays the switch's hardware configuration, as well as configuration files in use and boot images. The show version command also shows the switch's uptime. B is incorrect, but it is a valid command for showing the active configuration of the switch. C and D are invalid commands and result in error messages.

A19: Answer: B. The show running-config command displays the device's current active configuration. A is incorrect and results in an error message on the device. C and D are invalid commands that return error messages when entered.

A20: Answer: C. The show interfaces command displays statistics and status information on the interfaces of a switch. A is incorrect; the show version command displays the switch's hardware configuration, as well as configuration files in use and boot images. B and D are invalid commands.

A21: Answer: D. On a Catalyst switch, the show interface vlan 1 command displays information such as the IP address and subnet mask. A and C are incorrect and result in error messages. B is used on Microsoft operating systems to show the IP configuration.

A22: Answer: B. A new router enters a setup mode initially on its first boot. This creates a configuration file to be used when the router starts up again. A is incorrect. Although a switch can function with a default configuration, router configurations vary too greatly to allow a default configuration to work in most networks. C is incorrect, as the router initially looks in NVRAM for its configuration. D is incorrect because the router does not autosense and configure itself; it requires user interaction.

A23: Answer: C. Ambiguous command indicates that you are using an abbreviation but did not specify enough characters for the IOS to determine which command you intended. A is incorrect. If you do not specify enough parameters, for instance, you receive the % Incomplete command error. B is incorrect, as typographical mistakes result in the % Invalid input detected at '^' error. D is incorrect, as attempting to configure a nonexistent interface results in an % Invalid input detected at '^' error, as well.

A24: Answers: A and B. Ctrl+P and the up arrow both display the last command entered. Continue to use these keys to scroll through prior commands entered before the most recent command. Esc does not display prior commands, and the Tab key completes a command that you have begun typing, as long as it is not ambiguous.

A25: Answer: C. The terminal history size command sets the buffer for the current session only. A and B are invalid commands. D is incorrect; history size is a valid command, but it permanently changes the buffer size instead of changing it for the session only.

A26: Answer: C. The show version command shows the device's uptime. A is incorrect because show running-config shows the router's current active configuration. B and D are incorrect as well; show statistics and show uptime each display errors for invalid commands.

A27: Answer: C. RAM stores routing tables and the running configuration. A is incorrect, as NVRAM stores the startup configuration and is writable permanent storage. B is incorrect because flash memory is used for storage of the Cisco IOS, backup configurations, and other files. D is incorrect, as the IOS is the operating system of the router.

A28: Answer: A. NVRAM stores the startup configuration and is writable permanent storage. B is incorrect; Flash memory is used for storage of the Cisco IOS, backup configurations, and other files. C is incorrect because RAM stores routing tables and the running configuration. D is incorrect, as the IOS is the operating system of the router.

A29: Answer: B. Flash memory is used for storage of the Cisco IOS, backup configurations, and other files. A is incorrect because NVRAM stores the startup configuration and is writable permanent storage. C is incorrect, as RAM stores routing tables and the running configuration. D is incorrect because the IOS is the operating system of the router.

A30: Answer: B. Sub-interface mode allows you to configure virtual interfaces on a physical interface. A is incorrect because Interface mode supports commands on a per-interface basis. C is incorrect, as Line mode supports commands that configure the operation of a terminal line. D is incorrect; this prompt indicates that you are in Global Configuration mode.

A31: Answer: A. configure terminal is the correct command to enter Global Configuration mode. B and C are invalid commands and result in error messages. D is incorrect; this is a valid command, but it seeks configuration information from a network source instead of taking you into Global Configuration mode.

A32: Answer: C. Line mode supports commands that configure the operation of a terminal line as well as virtual terminal ports. A is incorrect, as Interface mode supports commands on a per-interface basis. B is incorrect, as Sub-interface mode allows you to configure virtual interfaces on a physical interface. D is incorrect, as this prompt indicates that you are in Global Configuration mode.

A33: Answer: E. As long as you haven't saved the running-config and any changes, reloading the router causes it to reboot and load the startup-config without any changes. C is a valid command, but incorrect. Copying the startup-config to the current running-config restores the router's configuration; however, if you have made a new configuration setting that won't be overwritten by the conflicting startup-config setting, it remains and is not overwritten. Instead, it is merged. A is an invalid command. B is a valid command, but it's the opposite of what you want to accomplish: It takes the current configuration in use and makes it the default startup configuration. D is incorrect because you can perform the desired operation from the command line.

A34: Answer: B. enable secret is the command used for creating encrypted passwords for Privileged EXEC mode. A is incorrect; enable password creates an unencrypted password. C and D are not valid IOS commands and result in error messages.

A35: Answer: B. The banner motd command creates a login message. The # symbol is a delimiter, indicating the start and end of your message. A is incorrect and results in an invalid command error message; it is missing the motd portion of the command. C is incorrect, as it does not follow the proper syntax by using the banner portion of the command. D is invalid, as there is no login command to create a login banner.

A36: Answer: D. line vty controls Telnet access, and password cisco is the correct syntax to set the password to cisco. A is incorrect, as line console controls console access. B is incorrect because enable secret is used not for Telnet access, but to control access to Privileged EXEC mode. C is incorrect, as line console is for console sessions, and enable secret is for setting the Privileged EXEC mode password.

A37: Answer: A. The logging synchronous command keeps console messages from interrupting, resulting in a more readable console session. B, C, and D are invalid commands that all result in error messages.

A38: Answer: B. exec-timeout 0 0 disables the timeout feature for sessions. A is incorrect; although using no with a command often disables it, there is no timeout command. C is incorrect as well, resulting in an invalid command error. D also is an invalid command. Although disable is a valid command for exiting Privileged EXEC mode, no disable does not achieve the desired goal.

A39: Answer: A. The proper format is interface type slot/port. B is incorrect; the correct syntax includes the term interface. C is incorrect, as interface is not used, and port numbering starts with 0. D is incorrect because although it uses the interface command, the port should be 0, not 1.

A40: Answer: B. The correct syntax of the command is clock rate bps. A and C are incorrect, as they do not use the proper syntax. D is incorrect because although the proper syntax is used, 2.4 does not set the bps to 2400 as required.

A41: Answer: A. In Interface Configuration mode, the no shutdown command re-enables the interface. B is incorrect; this command enters Privileged EXEC mode. C is incorrect because you don't need to specify the interface when you are in Line Configuration mode. D is incorrect; the enable command is not the proper command to achieve this goal.

A42: Answer: D. If both the interface and line protocol are down, there is a cable or interface problem. A is incorrect because the interface and line protocol are functioning fine. B is incorrect because if the interface is down, the line protocol cannot be up. C is incorrect; this indicates a clocking or framing problem.

A43: Answer: C. This situation indicates a clocking or framing problem. A is incorrect because the interface and line protocol are functioning fine. B is incorrect; if the interface is down, the line protocol cannot be up. D is incorrect because if both the interface and line protocol are down, there is a cable or interface problem.

A44: Answer: A. The administrator has issued the shutdown command. B is incorrect because if the interface is down, the line protocol cannot be up. C is incorrect, as this indicates a clocking or framing problem. D is correct because if both the interface and line protocol are down, there is a cable or interface problem.

A45: Answer: D. The show controller command shows the type of cable connected to the interface. This information is gathered when the router starts up. A is incorrect; the command does not exist. B is incorrect; show interface does not show the type of cable connected. C is incorrect. The running-configuration command does not show the type of cable connected.

A46: Answer: A. The media-type command specifies settings such as aui, 10base-t, and 100base-t and might need to be set if it is not autodetected. B, C, and D are invalid commands that result in errors.

A47: Answer: D. The clock rate needs to be set on the DCE device. A is incorrect because only the DCE device should be set. B is incorrect, as the DCE device must be configured with a clock rate. C is incorrect; the DCE, not the DTE device, needs to have the clock rate set.

A48: Answer: D. The service password-encryption command allows you to use encrypted passwords. A, B, and C are invalid commands that result in error messages when used in the command-line interface.

A49: Answer: B. This is Interface Configuration mode, used to change settings for a specific interface, including the IP address assigned to a specific interface. A is incorrect; this is Global Configuration mode, used for router-wide settings. C is a fictitious router mode. D is Line Configuration mode, used to configure the console or Telnet sessions.

A50: Answer: A. This is Global Configuration mode, used for router-wide settings, such as the hostname, or the message of the day. B is Interface Configuration mode, used to change settings for a specific interface. C is a fictitious router mode. D is Line Configuration mode, used to configure the console or Telnet sessions.

Chapter 2. TCP/IP Addressing and Protocol

1: Your junior network administrator wants to know what the default subnet mask is for a Class C IP address. What do you tell him?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.245.255.0

D. 255.255.255.0

E. 255.255.255.255

2: An application needs to have reliable, end-to-end connect-ivity. Which of the following protocols will give you reliable connectivity?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. ICMP

3: You are designing a network, which needs to support 55 users. You don't plan to extend the segment beyond the current number of users. Which subnet mask would best meet your needs?

A. 255.255.0.0

B. 255.255.255.0

C. 255.255.255.192

D. 255.255.255.160

4: You have added a new switch to your network. You want to manage it remotely, so you need to assign it an IP address. Your router that connects to the switch has an IP address of 172.16.12.33/27. Which of the following addresses can you assign to this switch?

A. 172.16.12.33/28

B. 172.16.12.32/27

C. 172.16.12.33/27

D. 172.16.12.34/27

E. 172.16.12.35/28

F. 172.16.12.38/28

G. 172.16.12.63/27

5: The address 172.16.208.16/20 is a host address in which of the following subnets?

A. 172.16.176.0–255.255.240.0

B. 172.16.192.0–255.255.240.0

C. 172.16.208.0–255.255.240.0

D. 172.16.224.0–255.255.240.0

6: You are designing an IP address scheme for your brand new remote office. The vice president of IT calls to tell you that you will be in charge of the 192.168.1.64/26 subnetwork. This supplies you with a single subnetwork with 62 hosts. You need to have at least two subnets with 14 hosts in each subnet. What custom subnet mask should you use?

A. 255.255.255.128

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.224

D. 255.255.255.240

E. 255.255.255.248

7: You have subnetted the 210.106.14.0 network with a /24 mask. Your boss at Acme, Inc. wants to know how many usable subnetworks and usable host addresses per subnet this would provide. What should you tell her?

A. One network with 254 hosts

B. Two networks with 128 hosts

C. Four networks with 64 hosts

D. Six networks with 30 hosts

8: Identify three valid host addresses in any subnet of the 201.168.27.0 network, assuming a fixed subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. (Choose three.)

A. 201.168.27.33

B. 201.168.27.112

C. 201.168.27.119

D. 201.168.27.126

E. 201.168.27.175

F. 201.168.27.208

9: What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 201.100.5.68/28?

A. 201.100.5.0

B. 201.100.5.32

C. 201.100.5.64

D. 201.100.5.65

E. 201.100.5.31

F. 201.100.5.1

10: Which of the following protocols uses a three-way handshake mechanism to establish sessions?

A. TCP

B. IP

C. UDP

D. IPX

E. Frame relay

11: Which of the following protocols is connection-oriented?

A. TCP

B. IP

C. IPX

D. Frame relay

12: You are using an application on your Windows 2000 client machines that provides error correction. You need a protocol to provide fast transport. Which protocol should your application use?

A. TCP

B. IP

C. UDP

D. SPX

E. AppleTalk

13: When using TCP, after a session is open, the applications can adjust the number of segments they receive before sending an acknowledgment. This behavior is known as ______________.

A. MTU adjustment

B. Windowing

C. Flexible Send Path

D. FCS

14: If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?

A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received.

B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received.

C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt.

D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host.

15: You are planning on using a single network that supports 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most efficient?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

E. Class E

16: RFC 1918 defines the private IP address ranges. Which of the following IP addresses are considered part of these ranges? (Choose three.)

A. 10.23.45.67

B. 126.21.34.56

C. 172.16.32.1

D. 172.31.234.55

E. 192.169.4.5

17: A new network is being designed for your company, Acme, Inc. If you use a Class C IP network, which subnet mask will provide one usable subnet per department while allowing enough usable host addresses for each department specified in the table?

Department
Number of Users

Corporate
7

Customer Support
15

Financial
13

HR
7

Engineering
16





A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.224

D. 255.255.255.240

E. 255.255.255.248

18: Which of these protocols provides data transport, relying on the error correction capabilities of the application itself?

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. SNMP

D. ICMP

19: Which of the following are used by TCP to ensure reliable delivery of data? (Choose two.)

A. MAC address resolution

B. Sequence numbers

C. Acknowledgments

D. Ping

E. Routing updates

20: You discover that you are able to adjust the window size of the TCP segment. You increase the window size to test the results. What will you observe happening on your network?

A. Increased throughput

B. Decreased throughput

C. Increased latency

D. Decreased reliability

21: Your organization is using the 192.168.1.0/24 address space. You need 28 subnets. What subnet mask would you use to create these subnets?

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.255.192

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.240

F. 255.255.255.248

22: Which of the following protocols maps IP addresses to MAC addresses for connectivity to occur between two hosts?

A. ARP

B. RARP

C. SLARP

D. DHCP

23: Your junior network administrator cannot seem to ping a host in another network and asks you why it isn't working. Which of the following is not an answer that you would give him?

A. The host's default gateway is down.

B. The destination host is not powered on.

C. The IP address of the router interface is incorrect.

D. The IP address of the switch to which the destination host connects is incorrect.

E. The host is in a different subnet.

24: Which of the following classes of IP addresses is utilized for multicasting?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

25: You give your IT department a spreadsheet of IP addresses and their subnets. You receive a call from one of the junior techs asking what the /26 means next to the IP addresses. You tell her:

A. It represents the number of hosts possible on that subnetwork.

B. It represents the number of subnetworks that are being used.

C. It represents the class of IP address being used.

D. It represents the number of bits in the subnet mask that are 1.

26: You are given an IP network of 192.168.5.0 and told that you need to separate this network into subnetworks that can support a maximum of 16 hosts per subnet. This will help alleviate congestion on the network. What subnet mask can you use to create the subnets necessary to meet the given criteria?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.240

27: Which of the following would a Class A network be assigned to?

A. Government agency

B. Small-to-medium sized corporation

C. SOHO

D. An individual

28: A client has the IP address 192.168.5.98/27. Which of the following addresses are on the same subnet as this host? (Choose two.)

A. 192.168.5.95

B. 192.168.5.100

C. 192.168.5.128

D. 192.168.5.110

29: Which of the following IP addresses is not a public IP address that can be routed over the Internet?

A. 2.3.4.5

B. 11.12.13.14

C. 165.23.224.2

D. 172.31.45.34

E. 203.33.45.22

30: You are given a Class B network. What is the default subnet mask assigned to the Class B network?

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.224.0.0

D. 0.0.0.0

31: You are troubleshooting your router's interfaces. For some reason, the Ethernet interface will not accept the IP address of 192.168.5.95/27 that you've assigned. Which of the following explains the router's refusal to take the IP address?

A. Class C addresses cannot be assigned to Ethernet interfaces.

B. The /27 is an invalid mask.

C. It is a broadcast address.

D. It is a public IP address.

E. It is a private IP address.

32: You are a network technician at Acme, Inc. You are required to divide the 172.12.0.0 network into subnets. Each subnet must have the capacity of 458 IP addresses. Also, according to the requirements, you must provide the maximum number of subnets. Which subnet mask should you use?

A. 255.255.255.254

B. 255.255.254.0

C. 255.255.240.254

D. 255.255.0.0

33: What is the subnetwork and broadcast IP address of 192.168.2.37 with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?

A. 192.168.2.24/192.168.2.31

B. 192.168.2.32/192.168.2.39

C. 192.168.2.40/192.168.2.47

D. 192.168.2.48/192.168.2.55

E. 192.168.2.56/192.168.2.63

34: One of your co-workers at Acme, Inc., needs to convert the binary number 11011010 into a decimal. What is the decimal equivalent?

A. 218

B. 219

C. 220

D. 221

E. 222

35: One of your co-workers at Acme, Inc., needs to convert the binary number 01011010 into a decimal. What is the decimal equivalent?

A. 75

B. 83

C. 90

D. 97

36: One of your co-workers at Acme, Inc., needs to convert the binary number 11010110 into a decimal. What is the decimal equivalent?

A. 198

B. 214

C. 252

D. 255

37: One of your co-workers at Acme, Inc., needs to convert the binary number 10110110 into a decimal. What is the decimal equivalent?

A. 182

B. 192

C. 202

D. 212

38: You are configuring a subnet for the Acme, Inc., branch office in Beijing. You need to assign IP addresses to hosts in this subnet. You have been given the subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. Which of these IP addresses would be valid? (Choose three.)

A. 15.234.118.63

B. 92.11.178.93

C. 134.178.18.56

D. 192.168.16.87

E. 201.45.116.159

F. 217.63.12.192

39: You are a network technician at Acme, Inc. You have subnetted the 208.98.112.0 network with a /28 mask. Your boss asks you how many usable subnetworks and usable host addresses per subnet this will provide. What should you tell her, assuming your router is using ip subnet-zero?

A. 62 networks and 2 hosts

B. 6 networks and 30 hosts

C. 8 networks and 32 hosts

D. 16 networks and 16 hosts

E. 16 networks and 14 hosts

40: What is a disadvantage of using a connection-oriented protocol such as TCP?

A. Packet acknowledgment might add overhead.

B. Packets are not tagged with sequence numbers.

C. Loss or duplication of data packets is more likely to occur.

D. The application layer must assume responsibility for the correct sequencing of the data packets.

41: You are a network technician at Acme, Inc. You have subnetted the 192.168.72.0 network with a /30 mask for connections between your routers. Your boss asks you how many usable subnetworks and usable host addresses per subnet this will provide. What should you tell her, assuming your router cannot use ip subnet-zero?

A. 62 networks and 2 hosts

B. 6 networks and 30 hosts

C. 8 networks and 32 hosts

D. 16 networks and 16 hosts

E. 14 networks and 14 hosts

42: Which of the following IP addresses are considered "network" addresses with a /26 prefix? (Choose two.)

A. 165.203.2.0

B. 165.203.5.192

C. 165.203.6.63

D. 165.203.6.191

E. 165.203.8.255

43: Identify three valid hosts in any subnet of 192.168.32.0, assuming the subnet mask used is 255.255.255.240. (Choose three.)

A. 192.168.32.33

B. 192.168.32.112

C. 192.168.32.119

D. 192.168.32.126

E. 192.168.32.175

F. 192.168.32.208

44: A Class C network address has been subnetted with a /27 mask. Which of the following addresses is a broadcast address for one of the resulting subnets?

A. 198.57.78.33

B. 198.57.78.64

C. 198.57.78.97

D. 198.57.78.97

E. 198.57.78.159

F. 198.57.78.254

45: What is the subnetwork address for a host with IP address 165.100.5.68/28?

A. 165.100.5.0

B. 165.100.5.32

C. 165.100.5.64

D. 165.100.5.65

E. 165.100.5.31

F. 165.100.5.1

46: Your boss wants to know what TCP stands for. What do you tell him?

A. Transmission Check Protocol

B. Transport Check Protocol

C. Transmission Control Protocol

D. Transport Control Protocol

47: Your boss wants to know what UDP stands for. What do you tell him?

A. Unreliable Data Protocol

B. Unreliable Data Program

C. User-Defined Protocol

D. User Datagram Protocol

48: Which of the following statements accurately describes UDP?

A. UDP copies files between a computer and a system running rshd, the remote shell service (daemon).

B. UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols that governs the exchange of electronic mail between message transfer agents.

C. UDP is a member of the TCP/IP suite of protocols and is used to copy files between two computers on the Internet. Both computers must support their respective roles: one must be a client, and the other a server.

D. UDP is a TCP complement that offers a connectionless datagram service guaranteeing neither delivery nor correct sequencing of delivered packets (much like IP).

49: Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that can be routed across the public Internet? (Choose three.)

A. 10.20.12.64

B. 172.16.32.129

C. 172.64.32.34

D. 192.168.23.252

E. 196.104.12.95

F. 214.192.48.254

50: You are connecting your Serial 0/1 interface to the Internet. Which of the following need to be done for the connection to work? (Choose two.)

A. Assign a public IP address.

B. Use the shutdown command.

C. Use the no shutdown command.

D. Make sure the interface is running in full-duplex.

Answers and Explanations
A1: Answer: D. The default subnet mask for Class C is 255.255.255.0. A is incorrect, as it is the default mask for Class A. B is incorrect, as it is the default mask for Class B. C is incorrect, as this is not a valid mask. Subnet masks must be consecutive ones. E is not correct, as it is the subnet mask of all ones.

A2: Answer: A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable end-to-end connectivity, along with error-detection capabilities. B is incorrect, as UDP does not provide any reliability. C is incorrect, as IP does not provide reliability. D is incorrect, as ICMP is used to help troubleshoot TCP/IP connections.

A3: Answer: C. This particular subnet mask allows for up to 62 hosts per network. A is incorrect, as it allows for 65,534 hosts. B is incorrect, as it allows up to 254 hosts. D is incorrect, as it is not a valid subnet mask.

A4: Answer: D. The next valid IP host address in the 172.16.12.32 network is 172.16.12.34. A is incorrect, as it is on a different subnetwork with a /28 mask. B is incorrect, as it is the network address for that particular subnetwork. C is incorrect, as it is the same IP address as the router interface. E and F are incorrect as well, as they are on different subnets than the router interface. Choice G is incorrect because it represents the broadcast address for the 172.16.12.32 subnetwork and cannot be used as a host address.

A5: Answer: C. The network address for the IP address is 172.16.208.0–255.255.240.0. A, B, and D are incorrect, as they are different subnetworks.

A6: Answer: D. This subnet mask gives you two additional subnets using VLSM, with up to 14 hosts per subnetwork. A is incorrect, as it is a higher subnet mask than your original /26, which is actually called supernetting. B is incorrect because it is your original subnet mask. C is incorrect, as it does not give you enough subnets. E is incorrect, as it gives you enough subnets (six), but you would have only six hosts.

A7: Answer: A. You have actually not done any subnetting with a /24 mask; it is the default Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. This gives you one network with 254 possible hosts. B, C, and D are incorrect because you have not borrowed any bits to create subnetworks.

A8: Answers: A, C, and D. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 divides the fourth octet into subnet parts: the highest four bits and a host port (the lowest four bits). You simply check the fourth octet to ensure that all subnet and host parts are okay. The host bit portion cannot be 0000 or 1111. A, C, and D are correct because 33 in decimal is 00100001, 119 in decimal is 01110111, and 126 in decimal is 1111110. B is incorrect, as 112 in decimal is 1110000 in binary. This is not a valid host address in this network. All its host bits are zero. E is incorrect, as 175 in decimal is 10101111 in binary. All host bits are ones. This is the local broadcast address and cannot be used as a host address. F is incorrect, as 208 in decimal is 11010000 in binary. This is not a valid host address in this network, and all its host bits are zero.

A9: Answer: C. The network address would be 201.100.5.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. A is incorrect, as it is the network address of subnet zero. B is incorrect, as it is the network address of another subnetwork. D is incorrect, as it is a valid host address on the 201.100.5.64 subnetwork. E is incorrect, as it is a broadcast address on another subnetwork. F is incorrect, as it is a valid host address on another subnetwork.

A10: Answer: A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) utilizes a three-way handshake to establish a session. B is incorrect, as IP (Internet Protocol) is used at Layer 3 of the OSI Model to provide logical addressing. C is incorrect, as UDP is not reliable and does not use a three-way handshake to establish a connection. D is incorrect, as IPX is not reliable and does not use a handshake method to provide a connection. E is incorrect, as frame relay does not provide any acknowledgment or error correction.

A11: Answer: A. TCP provides reliable, connection-oriented sessions to ensure that data is transferred correctly. B is incorrect, as IP (Internet Protocol) is used at Layer 3 of the OSI Model to provide logical addressing. C is incorrect, as IPX is not reliable and does not use a handshake method to provide a connection. D is incorrect, as frame relay does not provide any acknowledgment or error correction, and thus is unreliable and connectionless.

A12: Answer: C. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) relies on Layer 7 (Application) to handle error detection, correction, and control. Because of the low overhead, it is a very fast protocol. A is incorrect, as TCP contains significant overhead to handle the reliable delivery of data. B is incorrect, as IP (Internet Protocol) is used at Layer 3 of the OSI Model to provide logical addressing. D is incorrect, as SPX, Novell's proprietary connection-based protocol, provides reliable delivery and thus more latency. E is incorrect, as AppleTalk is a Layer 3 protocol that deals with logical addressing.

A13: Answer: B. Applications and operating systems have the capability to adjust the window size of TCP. The window size is the amount of data that can be sent before TCP requires an acknowledgment, or ACK. A is incorrect because adjusting the Maximum Transmission Unit merely adjusts how big the packets are or how much data they can contain. C is incorrect, as it does not exist in the TCP/IP protocol stack. D is incorrect, as the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) is used at the Data-link layer of the OSI Model to check for corrupted frames.

A14: Answer: B. When a host receiving information misses a segment from the TCP window, it sends an ACK message that shows the next segment number it is ready to receive. If this segment number is the same as a segment that was sent, the sending host knows to resend the information. A is incorrect, as the TCP segment number is included in the ACK sent. C and D are not valid acknowledgments and are thus incorrect.

A15: Answer: C. A Class C network can support 254 hosts. A is incorrect, as a Class A network supports more than 16 million hosts. B is incorrect, as a Class B network supports more than 65 thousand hosts. D is incorrect, as a Class D network is for use by multicast applications. E is incorrect, as Class E addresses are experimental and used only by the government and research organizations.

A16: Answers: A, C, and D. These addresses are all part of the private ranges of 10.x.x.x and 172.16.x.x–172.31.x.x. B is incorrect, as it does not fall into any of the RFC 1918-specified private ranges. Instead, it is a public IP address that is routable on the Internet. E is incorrect, as it is not a part of the private IP address range. It falls outside the 192.168.x.x range and thus is a public IP address.

A17: Answer: C. The subnet mask 255.255.255.224 gives you six usable subnetworks, assuming you are not using ip subnet-zero, with up to 30 available hosts per subnet. This subnet mask meets the criteria you have been given and even allows a bit of future growth. A is incorrect, as it is the default Class C subnet mask. It provides one network with 254 hosts. B is incorrect, as it gives only two subnetworks, assuming you are not using ip subnet-zero. D is incorrect, as it gives enough subnetworks but not enough hosts for the Customer Support or Engineering departments. E is incorrect, as it gives enough subnetworks but not enough hosts for most of the departments.

A18: Answer: A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) relies on the applications to provide error correction or detection. B is incorrect, as TCP is reliable and provides connection-oriented sessions. C is incorrect, as SNMP is a management protocol used by devices to communicate information to a management system such as CiscoWorks or HP's OpenView. D is incorrect, as ICMP is used by such troubleshooting utilities as ping and traceroute.

A19: Answers: B and C. TCP numbers the sequence of the segments sent out to ensure that all data arrives safely. The receiving side must send back acknowledgments that all segments were received. If it sends back negative acknowledgments, TCP resends the data. A is incorrect, as Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) or Inverse ARP provide MAC address resolution. D is incorrect, as ping is a utility that checks TCP/IP connectivity. E is incorrect, as routing updates are used by routing protocols such as RIP or OSPF to update information stored on another router's routing table.

A20: Answer: A. By using windowing, you can increase the amount of data sent before an ACK is sent back by the receiving side. This increases throughput. B is incorrect, as increasing window size increases, not decreases, throughput. C is incorrect, as increasing window size decreases latency. D is incorrect, as the protocol still requires an ACK to be sent by the receiving side. This does not decrease reliability in the slightest.

A21: Answer: F. The 255.255.255.248 subnet mask used on a Class C IP network produces 30 usable subnets. A is incorrect; it does not create any subnets, as it is the default Class C subnet mask. B is incorrect, as it creates only 2 subnets—that is, if the IOS recognizes IP subnet zero. C is incorrect, as 255.255.255.192 creates only 2 usable subnets. D is incorrect, as 255.255.255.224 creates only 6 usable subnets. E is incorrect, as 255.255.255.240 creates only 14 usable subnets.

A22: Answer: A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses. B is incorrect, as Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses, thus the "reverse." C is incorrect, as Serial Line Address Resolution Protocol (SLARP) automatically assigns IP addresses to serial interfaces if AutoInstall is being used and HDLC is the protocol in use on that interface. D is incorrect, as DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses to interfaces.

A23: Answer: D. The IP address of a Layer 2 switch is strictly for management purposes and doesn't affect Layer 3 connectivity. A, B, and C are incorrect, as they are valid reasons why a user cannot ping a remote host. E is incorrect because a remote host is in a different subnet by definition.

A24: Answer: D. According to the IETF, the Class D IP address range is used for multicast group addresses. A is incorrect, as Class A addresses are used by large corporations and governments for unicast purposes. B is incorrect, as Class B addresses are used by large-to-medium corporations and service providers for unicast purposes. C is incorrect, as service providers, users, and small businesses use Class C addresses for unicast purposes. Unicast is based on one-to-one communication, whereas multicast is used for one-to-many communication.

A25: Answer: D. Prefix notation, or / notation, shows the number of subnet mask bits that are turned to one, signifying a network portion of the address. A is incorrect, as it does not show the number of hosts on a subnetwork. B is incorrect, as it does not show the number of subnetworks in use. C is incorrect because, even though you can figure out whether it is a Class A, B, or C address based on the prefixes of /8, /16, or /24, it does not necessarily show the class of the address.

A26: Answer: D. The custom subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 gives you 30 hosts. Even though this number exceeds the requested 16, if you borrow an additional bit, you have only 14 available hosts. A, B, and C do not give you any subnets at all, and thus are incorrect. E is incorrect, as it gives you only 14 available hosts.

A27: Answer: A. Class A networks have all been assigned to governments and extremely large corporations. B is incorrect, as small-to-medium size companies would receive only a Class C network. C and D are incorrect, as a small office/home office (SOHO) or individual would not receive a network—only a few IP addresses from a Class C network.

A28: Answers: B and D. The address 192.168.5.98/27 has a decimal subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 and uses an increment of 32. This ends up making the network range 192.168.5.96–192.168.5.127. Answer A is incorrect because this is the broadcast address of the previous subnet. Answer C is incorrect because it is the network address of the following subnet.

A29: Answer: D. The IP address 172.31.45.34 is part of the RFC 1918-defined private IP address range for a Class B network. A, B, C, and E are incorrect, as they are all public IP addresses that can be routed on the Internet.

A30: Answer: B. The default Class B subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, or /16 in prefix notation. A is incorrect, as it shows a broadcast. C is incorrect, as it is a custom subnet mask, more than likely used for a Class A network. D is incorrect, as it is a special mask typically used for default routes.

A31: Answer: C. It is not a valid host address; 192.168.5.95/27 is a directed broadcast address for the 192.168.5.64 network. A is incorrect, as you can certainly assign Class C addresses to any type of interface. B is incorrect, as the /27 mask is the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask, which is perfectly valid. D is incorrect because it is a private IP address. E is incorrect, as the fact that it is a private IP address will not cause it to be refused by an interface.

A32: Answer: B. This gives you 126 subnets, assuming you are not using ip subnet-zero, with 510 hosts per subnet. A is incorrect, as it does not provide you with enough hosts to meet the criteria. C is incorrect, as it is an invalid subnet mask. Subnet masks must have contiguous ones. D is incorrect, as it is the default Class B subnet mask, and as such, you would not have any subnets.

A33: Answer: B. The address 192.168.2.37 is a valid host address on the 192.168.2.32 network, which has a directed broadcast address of 192.168.2.39. A, C, and D are incorrect, as 192.168.2.37 does not fall on any of those subnetworks with the given subnet mask.

A34: Answer: A. The number 11011010 = 218 in decimal. B is incorrect, as 11011011 = 219. C is incorrect, as 11011100 = 220. D is incorrect, as 11011101 = 221.

A35: Answer: C. The number 01011010 = 90 in decimal. A is incorrect, as 01001011 = 75. B is incorrect, as 01010011 = 83. D is incorrect, as 01100001 = 97.

A36: Answer: B. The number 11010110 = 214 in decimal. A is incorrect, as 11000110 = 198. C is incorrect, as 11111100 = 252. D is incorrect, as 11111111 = 255.

A37: Answer: A. The number 10110110 = 182 in decimal. B is incorrect, as 11000000 = 192. C is incorrect, as 11001010 = 202. D is incorrect, as 11010100 = 212.

A38: Answers: B, C, and D. They are valid host addresses when using a 255.255.255.224 subnet mask against the address. A is incorrect, as it is a broadcast address on the 16.234.118.32 network. E is incorrect, as it is a broadcast address on the 210.45.116.128 network. F is incorrect, as it is the network address for 237.63.12.192.

A39: Answer: E. The 255.255.255.248, or /28 subnet mask, gives you 16 subnetworks and 14 usable hosts, using the 2^n formula for subnets and (2^n – 2) formula for usable hosts, where n equals the number of bits borrowed for the subnet, or number of bits left for the hosts. You are able to use the first and last subnetworks because of the ip subnet-zero command on your router. A is incorrect, as it would be a /30 mask. B is incorrect, as it would be a /27 mask. C is incorrect, as there would never be 32 hosts per subnet; you always have to subtract 2 from the 2^n formula because of the network ID and the directed broadcast address on each subnetwork. D is incorrect, as you would never have 16 hosts per subnet; you always have to subtract 2 from the 2^n formula because of the network ID and the directed broadcast address on each subnetwork.

A40: Answer: A. TCP adds overhead with acknowledgments and session handshakes. B is incorrect, as TCP tags with sequence numbers. C is incorrect, as TCP is reliable and ensures data delivery. D is incorrect, as TCP has built-in mechanisms to handle sequencing and delivery and does not require the application's assistance.

A41: Answer: A. The mask /30 gives you 62 subnetworks and two available hosts per subnet using the (2^n [ms] 2) formula, where n equals the number of bits borrowed for the subnet, or number of bits left for the hosts. Because the router is not using ip subnet-zero, you cannot use the first or last subnet, which is why you subtract 2 from both the subnetworks and hosts. B is incorrect, as that would be a /27 mask. C is incorrect, as there would never be 32 hosts per subnet; you always have to subtract 2 from the 2^n formula because of the network ID and the directed broadcast address on each subnetwork. D is incorrect, as you would never have 16 hosts per subnet; you always have to subtract 2 from the 2^n formula because of the network ID and the directed broadcast address on each subnetwork. E is incorrect, as the /28 subnet mask gives you 14 subnetworks and 14 possible hosts.

A42: Answers: A and B. They are considered network ID addresses. They have all zeros in the host portion of the IP address with the subnet mask given. C, D, and E are incorrect, as they are all directed Broadcast Addresses on subnets.

A43: Answers: A, C, and D. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 divides the fourth octet into subnet parts: the highest four bits and a host port (the lowest four bits). You simply check the fourth octet to ensure that all subnet and host parts are okay. The host bit portion cannot be 0000 or 1111. A, C, and D are correct because 33 in decimal is 00100001, 119 in decimal is 01110111, and 126 in decimal is 1111110. B is incorrect, as 112 in decimal is 1110000 in binary, which is not a valid host address in this network—all host bits are zero. E is incorrect, as 175 in decimal is 10101111 in binary—all host bits are ones. This is the local broadcast address and cannot be used as a host address. F is incorrect, as 208 in decimal is 11010000 in binary. This is not a valid host address in this network, as it has all host bits of zero.

A44: Answer: E. The fourth byte in the IP address is 159, the binary value of which is 1011111. So, this is the broadcast address for 198.57.78.0/27 network. A is incorrect, as the binary value for 33 is 00100001. B is incorrect, as the binary value for 64 is 01000000. C and D are incorrect, as the binary value for 97 is 01100001. F is incorrect, as the binary value for 254 is 11111110. These are not broadcast addresses for the 198.57.78.0/27 network.

A45: Answer: C. If you use the subnet mask prefix value /28, 4 bits are left for the host portion. The total number of hosts is 16 (2 are reserved for network and broadcast in each subnetwork). The 165.100.5.68 host resides in subnetwork 165.100.5.64. Valid hosts in this network are 165.100.5.65–165.100.5.79. A is incorrect, as it is the network address for the first subnet, also known as subnet 0. B is incorrect, as it is the network address for 165.100.5.32. Valid hosts are 165.100.5.33–165.100.5.46. D is incorrect, as it is one of the valid hosts in subnetwork 165.100.5.64. E is incorrect, as it is the broadcast address. F is incorrect, as it is a valid host in subnetwork 165.100.5.0.

A46: Answer: C. TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol. A, B, and D are incorrect, as they are nonexisting protocols.

A47: Answer: D. UDP stands for User Datagram Protocol. It is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite and operates at Layer 4 of the OSI Model. A, B, and C name nonexistent protocols or programs.

A48: Answer: D. UDP relies on applications to provide error correction and reliability of transmission. A is incorrect, as it describes Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). B is incorrect, as it describes Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). C is incorrect, as it describes File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

A49: Answers: C, E, and F. These addresses are not private addresses defined by RFC 1918. These addresses can be routed across the public Internet. A is incorrect, as it is part of the private range of 10.x.x.x. B is incorrect, as it is part of the private range of 172.16.x.x–172.16.31.x.x. D is incorrect, as it is part of the private range of 192.168.x.x.

A50: Answers: A and C. A is correct because you must have a public IP address assigned to your interface to be able to communicate across the Internet. C is correct, as you must turn on the interface by using the no shutdown command. B is incorrect, as you must turn on the interface, not disable it with the shutdown command. D is incorrect, as duplex settings are not valid on serial interfaces, only on Ethernet interfaces.

Chapter 3. Basic IOS Configuration and Basic Serial WAN Connectivity

1: In which of the following modes in Cisco's IOS can you issue show commands? (Choose two.)

A. User

B. Privileged

C. Line Configuration

D. Global Configuration

2: You are the network administrator for a large corporation. You want to be able to store all your configurations in a centralized location. Which of these servers will allow you to do so? (Choose two.)

A. FTP

B. TFTP

C. SQL

D. Oracle

3: You need to troubleshoot your network IP connectivity. Which of the following commands would you use to find the IP address on your Ethernet 0 interface?

A. ping

B. IPConfig

C. traceroute

D. Show interface Ethernet 0

4: Which command would you use at the CLI in User mode to enter Privileged EXEC mode?

A. Privilege

B. Admin

C. Enable

D. Disable

5: You have just received 14 Catalyst switches for your network. You would like to install these switches into your production network to provide separate collision domains for each of the connected devices. What configuration is required to provide this functionality?

A. No configuration is required.

B. You must set up an IP address on the switch.

C. You must configure unique VLANs on the switches.

D. You must install the Cisco IOS.

6: Which of the following prompts indicates your router is in Privileged EXEC mode?

A. Router>

B. Router#

C. Router&

D. Router$

7: You have made a console connection to your Cisco Catalyst switch and you see the > symbol in HyperTerminal. What does it mean?

A. You are in Privileged EXEC mode.

B. You are in User EXEC mode.

C. The switch has not been configured.

D. The switch is in need of repairs.

8: You would like to assign a meaningful name to your Catalyst switch. What command should you use?

A. enable

B. host name

C. hostname

D. name

9: You need to assign an IP address to your Catalyst 2950 switch. You are at the HQ_SW1> prompt. What is the correct series of commands? (cr = carriage return)

A. enable ip address 10.1.1.1

B. enable ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

C. enable configure terminal ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

D. enable configure terminal interface vlan 1 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

10: Which of the following commands displays the syntax for the clock command?

A. cl?

B. clock?

C. clock ?

D. cl ?

11: Which of the following commands allows you to configure a welcoming message whenever you log in to a router?

A. Router(config)# banner message

B. Router(config)# banner motd &

C. Router# banner motd #

D. Router# banner message !

12: You need to connect to your 2621XM router to configure an interface. Which of the following methods allows you to connect to and issue commands on the router? (Choose three.)

A. Telnet

B. FTP

C. Console connection

D. AUX connection

13: You want to prevent unauthorized users from plugging their laptops into the router. What type of password helps prevent this issue?

A. vty

B. Interface

C. Console

D. Enable

14: You have connected to the console port and are running HyperTerminal. You see only scrambled characters and symbols. What is the most likely solution to this problem?

A. Change the connectors.

B. Use a different Terminal program.

C. Reset the router.

D. Adjust the baud rate of your COM port.


[View full size image]


15: Which of the following commands would you type to receive this output shown in the figure above?

A. Show running-config

B. Show startup-config

C. Show ip route

D. Show version

16: You are configuring a router named East for authentication with a router named West using CHAP. What username should you configure on East to allow the routers to communicate?

A. East

B. West

C. South

D. North

17: What is the default point-to-point encapsulation protocol used on a Cisco router?

A. PPP

B. SLIP

C. HDLC

D. ATM

18: What type of handshake occurs with CHAP authentication?

A. One-way

B. Two-way

C. Three-way

D. Mutual

19: You have connected to your Cisco router through a Telnet connection. To test one of your connections, you use a debug ip packet command. Even though you are sure traffic is passing through your router, nothing is reported in your terminal window. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. There is no debug ip packet command.

B. You need to type in the terminal monitor command to see debug output from a Telnet session.

C. This command displays information only if the interface experiences trouble. No output indicates that the interface is fine.

D. Cisco routers do not allow you to enable debug commands remotely due to security restrictions.


[View full size image]


20: Which of the following commands would you type to see this output on your Cisco router shown in the previous figure?

A. Show version

B. Show running-config

C. Show startup-config

D. Show router setup


[View full size image]


21: Which of the following commands would you type to see this output shown in the figure above?

A. Show interface Ethernet 0/0

B. Show ip interface detail

C. Show interface Serial 0/1

D. Show ip interface brief





22: Your routers at ACME, Inc., are having some connectivity issues. You issue show commands for each connecting router's interface. Why are they unable to communicate (see figures above)?

A. Incorrect IP address

B. Wrong routing protocol

C. Bad cable

D. Encapsulation mismatch

23: You need to back up the configurations you just made, but no TFTP servers are available. Which of the following commands are options to back up your currently running configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Router1#copy running-config startup-config

B. Router1#copy running-config flash

C. Router1#copy startup-config running-config

D. Router1#copy running-config http

24: You are consulting a small business that is establishing its first WAN link. The client wants to know what encapsulation you will be using on the link. Which of the following are valid encapsulations for WAN links? (Choose three.)

A. Frame relay

B. Ethernet

C. Token ring

D. PPP

E. HDLC

25: Your boss is concerned about security on your network. She wants to make sure that no one can identify passwords if he or she happens to view a configuration on your router. What command encrypts all passwords on your router?

A. Router1#service password-encryption

B. Router1(config)#service password-encryption

C. Router1#enable secret password

D. Router1(config)#enable secret password

26: You need to set up a password that will prevent unauthorized users from telnetting into your router. What series of commands would you use?


A. Acme1(config)# line console 0
Acme1(config-line)# password acme
Acme1(config-line)# login



B. Acme1(config)# line vty 0
Acme1(config-line)# enable password acme



C. Acme1(config)# line vty 0
Acme1(config-line)# enable secret acme
Acme1(config-line)# login



D. Acme1(config)# line vty 0
Acme1(config-line)# password acme
Acme1(config-line)# login


27: When you are setting up your serial interfaces, what does the clockrate command do for your connection?

A. Establishes the timing at which you send data

B. Establishes keepalives

C. Establishes the advertised bandwidth

D. Establishes the time on the router

28: You need to set up passwords on all your default Telnet lines. What command would you start with?

A. Router1(config)#telnet configuration

B. Router1(config)#interface Ethernet 0/1

C. Router1(config)#line vty 1 5

D. Router1(config)#line vty 0 4

29: You can execute show commands at which prompt? (Choose two.)

A. Router1#

B. Router1(config)#

C. Router1(config-router)#

D. Router1>

E. romon1>

30: You are configuring your router and type in an Enable password and an Enable Secret password. Your fellow network technician asks you why you have two passwords set when you need only one. What do you tell him?

A. The Enable password is used by low-level applications.

B. If you reverted to an older version of the IOS, it would not understand the Secret password.

C. Both passwords are treated the same.

D. It is a failsafe method of ensuring that people need to type two passwords instead of just one.

31: You need to get back to Privileged EXEC mode from Interface Configuration mode. What is the quickest method?

A. Ctrl+Shift+6; then press X

B. Ctrl+Esc

C. Ctrl+Z

D. Type exit

32: When you are establishing a PPP link, which of the following would be negotiated? (Choose three.)

A. IPCP

B. CHAP

C. UDP

D. Q.931

E. Multilink Protocol

33: Which of the following commands returns your router to a previously saved configuration?

A. Router1#setup

B. Router1#copy running-config startup-config

C. Router1#copy startup-config running-config

D. Router1#reload

34: You are in Interface Configuration mode and would like to recall the last command you typed, move your cursor to the beginning of the command line, and type no before the recalled command. You notice your up- and down-arrow keys do not function because you are using an older terminal program. What command combinations could you use to recall the previous command and move your cursor to the beginning of the line?

Press Ctrl+P to recall the previous command and Ctrl+A to move to the beginning of the command line.

Press Ctrl+L to recall the previous command and Ctrl+B to move to the beginning of the command line.

Press Ctrl+D to recall the previous command and Ctrl+A to move to the beginning of the command line.

Press Ctrl+E to recall the previous command and Ctrl+A to move to the beginning of the command line.

35: What is the baud rate setting for your terminal emulation program so that you can communicate through your console port?

A. 2400

B. 9600

C. 14400

D. 36300

36: What must be configured on a Cisco device to enable Telnet functionality?

A. A management IP address

B. SNMP

C. CDP

D. vty ports

37: You are configuring your Cisco router and need to go back to User EXEC mode. What command takes you back to User EXEC mode?

A. Router1#enable

B. Router1#exit

C. Router1#configure terminal

D. Router1#disable

38: Which of the following commands places an IP address on your Catalyst switch?

A. Switch1#ip address 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0

B. Switch1(config)#Set IP 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0

C. Switch1(config-vlan)#ip address 10.2.2.2

D. Switch1(config-vlan)#ip address 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0



39: Which of the following commands would you enter to receive this output shown in the figure above?

A. Router1#show NVRAM

B. Router1#show Flash

C. Router1#show Flash-Mem

D. Router1#show Version

40: Your senior network administrator is unable to telnet to a Catalyst switch because she forgot the IP address. You have physical access and are able to console in. Which of the following commands is the best to get the IP address on the switch?

A. Switch1#show ip

B. Switch1#show vlan 1

C. Switch1#show ip route

D. Switch1#show interface vlan1



41: You have powered up your Cisco 3640 router. The first thing you see is this output. Which of the following statements about this screen is accurate (see figure above)?

A. Your IOS is corrupt and unable to load.

B. Your configuration is missing parameters.

C. You do not have a configuration saved in NVRAM.

D. You have typed setup in the Privileged mode.

42: You type in a command and are shown the following output:


% Ambiguous command: "show con"




What does this mean?

A. You did not enter enough characters for your device to recognize the command.

B. You did not enter all the keywords or values required by this command.

C. You entered the command incorrectly.

D. Context-sensitive help is unable to help you with this command.

43: You are typing a command into the Cisco IOS. It is more than one terminal line long. What will the IOS do?

A. The router automatically moves the cursor to the next line and uses a caret (^) to indicate the line break.

B. The router truncates the command because commands longer than one line are not allowed.

C. The router automatically scrolls the line to the left and uses a dollar sign ($) to indicate that there is text to the left of the $.

D. The router shortens all the commands to squeeze the command on to the screen.

44: You want to change the size of the command history buffer. Which of the following commands will set it permanently to 100?

A. Router1#terminal history 100

B. Router1#history size 100

C. Router1(config)#terminal history 100

D. Router1(config-line)#history size 100

45: You have configured a description on your serial interfaces. Which of the following commands displays the description? (Choose two.)

A. Show running-config

B. Show flash

C. Show interfaces

D. Show ip protocols

46: You are typing commands into your Cisco IOS on your 3640 router. However, your typing is consistently interrupted by console messages, forcing you to retype. Which of the following commands forces the IOS to retype your original input after it displays the console message?

A. Exec-timeout

B. Logging synchronous

C. Line console

D. Exec message readout

47: You are configuring a router and issue the command interface ethernet 1/0/0. What do the numbers represent?

A. Slot/port/interface

B. Slot/interface/port

C. Port/slot/port number

D. Slot/port adapter/port number

48: Which of the following commands correctly sets the physical speed of a serial interface to 64Kbps?

A. Router1(config-if)#bandwidth 64

B. Router1(config-if)#bandwidth 64000

C. Router1(config-if)#clockrate 64

D. Router1(config-if)#clockrate 64000

49: In what mode do you use the encapsulation command?

A. Interface Configuration mode

B. Sub-interface Configuration mode

C. User mode

D. Privileged mode

50: You are configuring your router, and your boss happens to look over your shoulder as you type a show running-config command. She sees one of the lines that says password 7 14361F009A056E7D and asks what this means. What do you tell her?

A. It is the actual password.

B. It is the result of a service password-encryption command.

C. The console output made a mistake.

D. It is the result of an enable secret command.

Kesehatan

 

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