Chapter 6. VLANs

1: You are creating a report recommending the use of VLANs in your network. Which of the following features are provided by VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. Segmentation

B. Flexibility

C. Logging

D. Security

2: Which of the following statements regarding VLANs is true?

A. A VLAN is a physical broadcast domain spanning multiple logical subnets.

B. A VLAN is a logical broadcast domain spanning multiple physical subnets.

C. A VLAN is a logical broadcast domain spanning multiple logical subnets.

D. A VLAN is a physical broadcast domain spanning multiple physical subnets.

3: On which of the following devices can you implement VLANs?

A. Bridges

B. Routers

C. Hubs

D. Switches

4: Which of the following allows a port to carry traffic for multiple VLANs?

A. Port spanning

B. A trunk

C. Fast Ethernet

D. Split horizon

5: Which of the following are membership modes supported by VLANs? (Choose two.)

A. Public

B. Private

C. Static

D. Dynamic

6: You need to configure a VLAN Management Policy Server. Which of the following switches can fill this role? (Choose two.)

A. Catalyst 1924

B. Catalyst 2950

C. Catalyst 5000

D. Catalyst 6509

7: Which piece of information is used by a VLAN Management Policy Server to dynamically assign a port to a VLAN?

A. Source IP address

B. Source hostname

C. Source MAC address

D. Source port

8: Which of the following statements about VLAN Membership modes are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A dynamic port can belong to multiple VLANs at once.

B. Multiple hosts from different VLANs can be active on a dynamic port.

C. The Catalyst switch queries a VMPS when a frame arrives on a dynamic port.

D. The VMPS contains a database mapping MAC address to VLAN membership.

9: Which of the following technologies are methods to implement trunking? (Choose two.)

A. 802.1Q

B. WEP

C. ISL

D. IEEE 1394

10: In 802.1Q trunking, what is the default native VLAN ID?

A. VLAN 0

B. VLAN 1

C. VLAN A

D. There is no default VLAN ID.

11: Which of the following statements about 802.1Q frame tagging are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The 802.1Q protocol tags frames for the native VLAN.

B. The 802.1Q protocol doesn't tag frames for the native VLAN.

C. Tagged frames can be read by ordinary stations.

D. Tagged frames cannot be read by ordinary stations.

12: Adding a tag recomputes which portion of the 802.1Q frame?

A. Destination

B. Source

C. Data

D. FCS

13: Which of the following are characteristics of ISL? (Choose three.)

A. Vendor interoperability

B. Supports full-duplex

C. Supports half-duplex

D. Trunking

E. Encryption

F. Authentication

14: ISL functions at which layer of the OSI Model?

A. Physical layer

B. Data-link layer

C. Network layer

D. Session layer

15: What does ISL use to confirm that a frame has not been damaged during transit?

A. CRC

B. Digital signature

C. Data integrity

D. BPDU

16: The VTP functions at which layer of the OSI Model?

A. Physical layer

B. Data-link layer

C. Network layer

D. Session layer

17: Which of the following is the primary function of VTP?

A. Encryption

B. Authentication

C. Pruning

D. Messaging

18: How many VTP domains can a switch be configured in?

A. 1

B. 64

C. 255

D. Unlimited

19: Which of the following are modes under which VTP operates? (Choose three.)

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

20: You have installed a Catalyst switch in your network. Which VTP mode is it operating in by default?

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

21: Where are VLAN configurations stored?

A. RAM

B. NVRAM

C. Flash

D. They are not stored.

22: Which of the following is a VTP mode and does not save configuration information?

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

23: Which of the following are VTP modes with the capability to create, modify, and delete VLANs? (Choose two.)

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

24: Which of the following VTP modes forward advertisements? (Choose three.)

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

25: Which of the following VTP modes does not synchronize its information?

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

26: By default, how often are VTP advertisements sent?

A. 30 seconds

B. 1 minute

C. 5 minutes

D. 10 minutes

27: Which transmission method does VTP use to send advertisements?

A. Broadcast

B. Unicast

C. Multicast

D. Groupcast

28: Which of the following commands resets the configuration revision number on a Catalyst switch?

A. vtp reset

B. vtp server reset

C. delete vtp

D. vtp revision 0

29: When a switch receives advertisements containing conflicting VLAN configuration information, how is the conflict resolved?

A. The first advertisement received is processed.

B. The last advertisement received is processed.

C. The latest time stamp is kept.

D. The highest revision number is kept.

30: Which process uses VLAN advertisements to determine when a trunk connection is unnecessarily flooding traffic?

A. Flood detection

B. Broadcast quenching

C. Flood quenching

D. VTP pruning

31: Which of the following VTP modes supports the enabling of VTP pruning?

A. Server

B. Client

C. Peer

D. Transparent

E. Static

F. Dynamic

32: On a Catalyst 2950, what is the default VTP domain name?

A. VLAN1

B. VLAN0

C. VTP 0

D. None

33: Which mode must you be in to configure a VTP domain for a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Privileged EXEC mode

B. Global Configuration mode

C. VLAN Configuration mode

D. User EXEC mode

34: You want to configure a trunk port on a Catalyst 5000 series switch to use desirable negotiation. What command must you enter?

A. trunk desirable

B. TRunk negotiation desirable

C. set trunk desirable

D. negotiation desirable

35: You need to assign a port as the trunk port. What configuration mode must you be in?

A. Privileged EXEC mode

B. Global Configuration mode

C. Interface Configuration mode

D. User EXEC mode

36: What command enables pruning on a Catalyst 2950 switch?

A. vtp pruning on

B. pruning on

C. vtp pruning enable

D. pruning enable

37: Which of the following commands defines cisco01 for your VTP domain name?

A. vtp name cisco01

B. vtp domain cisco01

C. vtp domain name cisco01

D. domain cisco01

38: You are configuring a trunk on your Catalyst 2950 switch. Which command is appropriate?

A. switchport trunk

B. port trunk

C. switchport mode trunk

D. port mode trunk

39: Which of the following are considered true trunking protocols? (Choose two.)

A. ISL

B. VTP

C. 802.1q

D. 802.1d

40: Which mode must you be in to configure an ISL trunk port?

A. Interface Configuration mode

B. Port Configuration mode

C. Global Configuration mode

D. Line Configuration mode

41: You are trying to create VLANs that will be automatically propagated out to all other switches. You create the VLANs, but they are not propagated to other switches. You type the show vtp status command and receive the following output. What is wrong?


VLANSwitch> show vtp status

VTP Version : 2

Configuration Revision : 0

Maximum VLANs supported locally : 250

Number of existing VLANs : 18

VTP Operating Mode : Transparent

VTP Domain Name :

VTP Pruning Mode : Enabled

VTP V2 Mode : Disabled

VTP Traps Generation : Disabled

MD5 digest : 0xBF 0x84 0x94 0x33 0xFC 0xAF 0xB5 0x70

Configuration last modified by 0.0.0.0 at 0-0-00 00:00:00




A. You must first disable VTP pruning to allow the revisions to propagate.

B. The VTP version number is wrong.

C. You need to change the VTP mode to Client mode.

D. You need to change the VTP mode to Server mode.

42: What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be configured on a switch?

A. 8

B. 128

C. 255

D. Switch-dependent

43: You have hired a new salesperson. All sales associates are placed in VLAN5. You are adding a port on your Catalyst 2950 switch to VLAN 5. Which commands accomplish this goal?

A. wg_sw1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 5

B. wg_sw1(config)#vlan-membership port vlan 5

C. wg_sw1(config-if)#vlan-membership static 5

D. wg_sw1(config) #port membership vlan 5

44: Which statement is accurate when describing the role of a VLAN in a corporate network?

A. It can be used to reduce the segments in a network.

B. It can be used to reduce broadcasts/multicasts in a network.

C. It reduces the security capability of a network.

D. It does not allow Quality of Service to be deployed.

45: You want to view VLAN information for your Catalyst 2950, including when the configuration was last modified. What command should you enter?

A. show vlan

B. show vtp

C. show vtp status

D. show ports

46: You want to quickly view the VLANs running STP, the number of ports in each VLAN, and the ports on the switch that are blocking. Which command should you enter?

A. show spantree

B. show stp

C. show vlan

D. show vtp

47: A VLAN you created previously is now no longer needed, and you want to remove it. The VLAN is named VLAN4. Which command should you enter?

A. vlan VLAN4 delete

B. no vlan VLAN4

C. delete vlan VLAN4

D. vlan VLAN4 disable

48: On a Catalyst 2950, which mode must you be in to delete a VLAN?

A. VLAN Configuration mode

B. Global Configuration mode

C. Interface Configuration mode

D. Privileged EXEC mode

49: For traffic to pass from one VLAN to another, a ____________ is required that can understand trunking protocols.

A. Router

B. Switch

C. Hub

D. Trunking bridge

50: You want to verify VLAN membership on a Catalyst 2950. You want to display VLAN assignment and membership type for all switch ports; however, you do not want to view any extra information. Which command best displays this information?

A. show vlan short

B. show vlan brief

C. display vtp brief

D. display vtp short